Thoughts on Christian marriage, I
Over the next four days, the Daily Episcopalian will feature a two-part essay by the Rev. George Clifford on the history of Christian understandings of marriage. Part two will appear on Sunday/Monday.
By George Clifford
In general, the Biblical witness about marriage appears to progress toward monogamy. Yet the Biblical basis for confidently declaring that marriage is uniquely between one man and one woman seems somewhat tenuous at best. Even a cursory reading of the Old Testament reveals multiple acceptable patterns for marriage: polygamy, concubinage, Levirate, etc. The status of those teachings today is unclear. For example, Scripture nowhere teaches that the practice of Levirate marriage – a widow marrying a brother of her deceased husband in order to keep the husband’s property in the family – is obsolete.
By the time of Jesus’ birth, the dominant cultural pattern for marriage among Jews was clearly that of one man married to one woman. However, nothing in Jesus’ teachings excludes other patterns, e.g., he never explicitly teaches that a person shall have only one spouse at any given time. Only when read with a presumption of monogamy do gospel passages appear to teach monogamy. For example, Mark 10:12 records Jesus teaching that if a woman divorces her husband she commits adultery. Read with the presumption of polygamy, the passage neither implicitly nor explicitly forbids the husband from having multiple wives.
Similarly, the NRSV translates 1 Timothy 3:2 as “married only once” instead of the more traditional “husband of one wife.” Yet both versions arguably presume that many people marry more than once; neither translation actually precludes the possibility that some Christians then practiced polygamy.
Only in the Pauline writings is the case for heterosexual monogamy stated directly (cf. 1 Corinthians 7:2). Even then, the teaching’s applicability may be problematic. Why elevate the authority of the Pauline corpus above that of the rest of Scripture? Perhaps culture rather than God shaped Paul’s thoughts about marriage as happened with his thoughts about slavery and women.
From a theological perspective, the Christian Church followed Paul, prevailing cultural mores, or both, and from its early centuries taught that the sacrament of marriage was the indissoluble union of one man and one woman. Then the Church began to modify that narrow approach – thankfully!
First, the Church recognized that in some instances a purported marriage was just that, only a facsimile and not the substance of a marriage. Reasons the Church might declare a marriage invalid included the legal encumbrance of one party preventing him or her from being legally free to marry (perhaps because he/she was already married) or one party not intending a faithful marriage. The Roman Catholic Church’s annulment process still operates on this basis, emotionally scarring many. Senator Ted Kennedy’s first wife, Joan, notoriously refused to cooperate with her husband when he sought to have their marriage annulled. She contended that their progeny constituted living proof of a valid marriage; additionally, she argued, annulment would tacitly declare their children illegitimate.
Second, the Church improved its theology, shifting from supporting arranged marriages and considering women as chattel to promoting marriages based on mutual, consensual love and viewing women as equal partners with men. The Book of Common Prayer’s option for the Officiant at a marriage to inquire, “Who gives this woman to this man?” is an anachronistic, liturgical residue of the erroneous notion that women are property.
Third, by the beginning of the twenty-first century the Christian Church recognized that imperfect humans make imperfect choices with respect to marriage partners and sometimes destroy reasonably good marriages. In other words, the Church finally discerned that grace abounds more if marriages that have died or become destructive end in divorce with the possibility of healing and remarriage rather than legalistically condemning the parties in such marriages to remain in hellish bondage or celibate. Sadly, the Church of England is among the limited number of ecclesiastical bodies retaining a more legalistic rather than grace-filled understanding of marriage and divorce. The Episcopal Church seeks a healthy middle ground between casual, serial monogamy and legalism with our process focused on healing those whose marriage has ended as an integral element of preparing for remarriage.
Let me be clear. I am an unabashed and wholehearted proponent of faithful monogamy. My brief review of marital practices described in the Bible and our evolving theological understanding of marriage simply emphasizes that concepts of Christian marriage have not remained static over the millennia. The history of Christian marriage is an unfolding narrative of increasing grace, albeit a history of slow and uneven progress.
The Rev. George Clifford, Diocese of North Carolina, served as a Navy chaplain for twenty-four years He taught philosophy at the U. S. Naval Academy and ethics at the Postgraduate School. He blogs at Ethical Musings.

Thanks for this George, I'll be interested to see where you go with it. I would like to add two points to what you've got here, one a point of context, the other a theological observation (and my apologies if you're touching on them in your next section and I'm being premature...)
1. I think it helps to have some context for the "married once" bit. According to sources I've looked at (Adkins & Adkins, Handbook to Life in Ancient Rome) roughly a third of Roman marriages ended within 10 years the culprits being in equal measure divorce or death of a partner. (We often forget how risky childbirth was for women then!)
2. After reading through 1 Cor 7 with my wife's parish on Sunday, I am more convinced than ever that a Christian theology of marriage and sexuality cannot begin with marriage. Instead, given the evidence in several early and independent strands of Christian thought (1 Cor 7, Matt 22:23-33|Mark 12:18-27|Luke 20:27-40, et al.) and its enduring presence in 2nd century interpreters and beyond (like the Encratites), we must recognize that the preferred option for Christians was celibacy. Marriage comes in a distant second for those without self-control; like divorce, it is a concession to our weakness... (Speaking as a weak married person myself... :-))
If we don't recognize this fundamental fact, we mistake the proper contours of the discussion.
Posted by Derek Olsen
|
January 30, 2009 9:30 AM
"The history of Christian marriage is an unfolding narrative of increasing grace, albeit a history of slow and uneven progress."
What a quaint 19th century understanding of history...
Dennis Bosley
Posted by dvb
|
January 30, 2009 9:58 AM
I'm going to push back against Derek's #2 for a moment. The latter can and I think did lead to Docetic and flesh-hating tendencies. I think we have to move beyond this notion of strong/weak to what is God's will in a particular person's life. The former tendency tends to lead to devaluation of marriage as a vocation and as discipleship. Celibacy as with marriage should at heart be oriented toward chastity, that is purity or singularity of heart. Sr. Mary Margaret Funk's work on such matters in the monastic mode, "Thoughts Matter" is helpful in this regard.
I think our Prayer Book tradition provides for this moderate, vocation oriented approach that seeks to build up others to their particular calling rather than put down the many for the building up of the few. This is to say, we need a renewed multivalent discussion of lifestyle vocations in our time, not a revisiting that reproduces some of the problems of the past.
Posted by Christopher Evans
|
January 30, 2009 10:28 AM
That is to say, the virtue or orientation toward Christ, chastity (and its attending virtues), rather than a particular expression of this, celibacy, should be the starting point.
Posted by Christopher Evans
|
January 30, 2009 10:30 AM
As I recall, from reading Duby's The Knight, the Lady and the Priest: The Making of Modern Marriage in Medieval France, for much of Christian history, at least through the Medieval period, the Church had little interest in marriage at all, save regarding clergy. Their participation in marriage of secular couples was largely limited to nobility (as serfs weren't really free to marry in the first place), and then only to pray for fertility.
Marshall Scott
Posted by mscottsail
|
January 30, 2009 10:37 AM
I'm going to push back against Derek's #2 for a moment. The latter can and I think did lead to Docetic and flesh-hating tendencies.
Oh, I agree entirely, Christopher--but if we're talking about constructing a Christian theology that is grounded in the Scriptures, than we have to investigate what it is that the Scriptures are saying. Those are the words on the page. A discussion of the biblical witness (cf. the thesis statement at the head of the first paragraph) that elides or ignores the textual calls to celibacy is not dealing with the full New Testament let alone biblical witness.
I too think that chastity is the proper beginning and it avoids the trap of the assumption of the normativity of marriage that some often fall into with this discussion.
Posted by Derek Olsen
|
January 30, 2009 10:45 AM
Marshall and Derek have it exactly right! Even in the late medieval era, the vast majority of marriages (except royal or noble ones) had nothing to do with the Church, but were effected merely by common consent and declaration.
We have colored our ideas of marriage from culture, not from Scripture.
Some while ago, I put together the following (in defense of monasticism).
A bible reader, uncontaminated by current culture, would read of a celibate Master and Lord:
A. who chose, called, and surrounded himself with celibate men and women as apostles — in some cases (e.g., St. Peter) possibly actually taking them away from their families (Mk 1:30 & Matt. 19:27), and having little sympathy with those who placed family bonds ahead of discipleship (Matt. 8:21-22 & Lk. 9:59-62).
B. whose primary comments on marriage are warnings about its pitfalls — so that his followers declare that it seems expedient not to marry. (Matt. 19:10)
C. who clearly teaches that God favors those who own little or nothing, and that the rich have no chance of salvation. (Mark 10:25)
D. who declares, "whoever of you does not renounce all that he has cannot be my disciple" (Luke 14:33)
E. who promises his apostles: "There is no one who has given up home, or wife, brothers, parents, or children, for the sake of the kingdom of God who will not be repaid many times over in this age, and in the age to come have eternal life." [Note: the only biblical "guarantee" of eternal salvation to any specific person[s] aside from the Penitent Thief.] (Luke 18:29-30)
F. who praises the widow who gives away all that she owns. (Mark 12:43)
G. whose first followers sold all that they owned, lived a communal and shared life, and went to church services every day. (Acts 2:44-47)
H. whose most prolific apologist (St. Paul) also chose to go against his culture and remain celibate (like his Lord) — and who advocated celibacy as the ideal for all Christians (tolerating marriage only as a poor compromise with human libido) (1 Cor. 7:9) — and who praised those "real widows" who choose not to re-marry, (I Tim. 5:3, 9-12) — and who calls upon Christians to "pray constantly". (1 Thess. 5:17)
Commentators have used a lot of ingenuity to try to find "escape" clauses or explain away the plain sense, but it seems there can be little doubt that a life of poverty, celibacy, obedience, and prayer is exactly and precisely in keeping with virtually everything the biblical record tells us Jesus Himself did and taught, with all that his disciples did and taught, and with the way in which the original Jerusalem Christians (who had known Jesus personally) lived.
Posted by John-Julian,OJN
|
January 30, 2009 2:58 PM
Yes, I always find it very, very interesting indeed that Luke 14:33 is never used as a prooftext in any of these discussions.
But how can anybody deny the "plain sense of Scripture" there? "Whoever of you does not renounce all that he has cannot be my disciple."
Seems pretty straightforward, to me....
Posted by BSnyder
|
January 31, 2009 2:47 PM
BSnyder wrote:
But how can anybody deny the "plain sense of Scripture" there? "Whoever of you does not renounce all that he has cannot be my disciple."
I'm not trying to take away from the radical call of Jesus to discipleship here.
But I have to ask:
Are intimate relationships something that we "have" ?
This is a quite serious question -- both about the persons with whom we are bound in love and commitment and about the way we interpret Scripture.
Everyone has a hermeneutic. One person's "plain sense" may be another's "contextually bound."
And everyone has, or rather lives inside, a culture. Everyone.
Again -- I'm with you on the radical call, and I do think Jesus turns our worlds upside down. I do think he asks for our whole selves. I'm just not sure I buy this particular use of Scripture to make this particular argument about marriage.
Posted by Jane Redmont
|
January 31, 2009 3:04 PM
The point I'm making is that nobody follows "the plain sense of Scripture." And that the use of this argument against gay people - and it's used that way every single day - is nothing but a tremendous (and laughable) hypocrisy.
The major point being made by Derek and others here is, as Fr. John-Julian notes, arguments around marriage have been "contaminated by current culture" to the point where nobody even notices what the words on the page say anymore - and where all sorts of excuses are made to avoid "the plain sense of Scripture" when it's inconvenient for those who use the argument against others. And who never think to apply it to themselves.
As Derek says, "a Christian theology of marriage and sexuality cannot begin with marriage." But that's where everybody begins, because that's where the culture says to begin. People who accuse gay folks, and the Episcopal Church, of being "wedded to the culture" apparently can't see the log in their own eye for the speck in somebody else's.
Posted by BSnyder
|
January 31, 2009 4:29 PM
(I mean, let's face it: Jesus says that "If anyone comes to Me, and does not hate his own father and mother and wife and children and brothers and sisters, yes, and even his own life, he cannot be My disciple." And I believe the word used is, really and explicitly, "hate."
These are Jesus' "family values"! Interesting, as I say, that this never seems to be used as a prooftext for anything. Yet somehow it's OK to bring up the "plain sense of Scripture" when it comes to gay people?
By what logic, really?)
Posted by BSnyder
|
January 31, 2009 4:34 PM